Wouldn’t the fact that 1 John 5:7 was removed from most Greek Textus Receptus manuscripts disprove the argument that the Textus Receptus was the uncorrupted text (as compared to the Critical Text)?
This is an honest doubt. I believe the Textus Receptus that underlies the King James Version is the preserved Word of God. I am just asking this question so that I would have a good answer in case someone would ask me.
Thank you for your help!